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Try Out Toefl 1 Suported by: Eri Sahabudin 1.Do your best.. 2. spent your time as the directoins ask. 3. sent your answer before 3 days left. 4. you’ll get your score if only you sent your answer before the date ( 16-03-2016) 4. you’ll get the key answer to you after you get your scor..



Section 1: Listening Comprehension 50 Questions 40 MINUTES In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions tor each part. Answer ail the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test. When you take me actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Try to work Model on this Model Test in the same way.



Part A Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated, after you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. 1. (A) (B) (C) (D)



Wait at a drugstore. Go to a doctor's office. Find a hospital. Look for some aspirin.



7. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The bike is in good condition. The man needs to replace the bike. The bike is missing. It is a new bike.



2. (A) He doesn’t mind the traffic. (B) He takes the bus to work. (C) He has to stand on the bus if he takes it to work. (D) He wants to fide to work with the woman.



8. (A) The books were more expensive than two hundred dollars. (B) She would like to buy the books. (C) She cannot afford the price of the books. (D) She has not purchased her books yet.



3. (A) (B) (C) (D)



9. (A) (B) (C) (D)



She wants to fix supper. She wants to stay at home. She is not hungry. She wants to go out.



10. (A) (B) (C) (D)



He is at his office. He is at lunch. He is at the travel agency. He is at the bakery. .



11. (A) (B) (C) (D)



See a lawyer. Come to an agreement. Sue the company. Go to court.



12. (A) (B) (C) (D)



Something cold. Coffee. Tea. Both coffee and tea.



She is flattered. She is not interested. She is not busy. She will support the man's nomination.



4. (A) The woman should not consider her advisor in the decision. (B) The woman should not take Dr. Sullivan’s section. (C) The woman’s advisor will not be of fended. (D) The woman should not take a physics course. 5. (A) (B) (C) (D)



It was too far from work. It was very old. The school was far away. The area was not nice.



6. (A) She is not interested in the man. (B) She does not like lectures. (C) She would go out with the man on another occasion. (D) She would rather stay at home.



13. (A) Ask directions. (B) Walk to the shopping center. (C) Take a taxi. (D) Wait for the bus.



14. (A) (B) (C) (D)



He does not plan to study. He has a very busy schedule. He is lost. He has not registered yet.



23. (A) She was not capable of making such a long trip. (B) She did not know about the reception. (B) She was sorry that she could not attend (C) She was not able to go because she tired.



15. (A) He does not want to listen to the radio. (B) He has changed his opinion about turning on the radio. (C) The radio will not bother him. (D) The radio is not working very well.



24. (A) (B) (C) (D)



16. (A) (B) (C) (D)



Stop worrying. Go out more. Talk to a friend. Get counseling.



25. (A) Pay the rent for half a month. (B) Help the man move. (C) Stay where she is living until the 15th. (D) Move out of the apartment.



17. (A) (B) (C) (D)



A telephone call. A visit from friends. A mistake on a bill. A letter they have written.



26. (A) (B) (C) (D)



18. (A) (B) (C) (D)



He prefers to talk another time. He wants the woman to go away He would like the woman to continue. He doesn't know what to think.



19. (A) (B) (C) (D)



Accept the woman's apology. Allow the woman to go ahead of him. Apologize to the woman. Go to the front of the line



27. (A) The man bought his car at Discount automotive. (B) The woman has probably made a mistake. (C) The cars at Discount automotive are not very reliable. (D) The prices are very competitive.



20. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The neighbors have parties often. She does not like her neighbors. The neighbors' party is disturbing her. She will not be invited to the neigh party.



21. (A) Dr. Franklin is not very understanding. (B) The extension was a very bad idea. (C) She is sorry that the man was denied request. (D) The professor's answer is not surprising 22. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The computer needs to be replaced. The man should check the plug. The man should use the printer at work The man doesn't know how to use the printer.



They do not have a telephone. They are late. They have been left. They got lost.



She had already taken the test. She did not want to take classes. She had not taken the placement test. She would take the math classes later.



28. (A) (B) (C) (D)



He may not be able to come. He would rather go to Miami. He is not an honest person. He doesn’t know that the woman is having a birthday.



29. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The plan is to remain in the class. It is not comfortable in the classroom. He has been absent because he was sick. The weather has been very bad.



30. (A) (B) (C) (D)



She thinks the pizza place is closed. She does not like the man. She is very busy now. She is not hungry for a pizza



Part B Questions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the later of the answer you have chosen. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test pages. 31. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The speakers wanted coffee. The man lost money. The Student Center was crowded. The woman needed to make a phone call.



36. (A) (B) (C) (D)



32. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The time. The money. The coffee. The test.



37. (A) He has planned to graduate in the fall. (B) He has to take Professor Day's class in order to graduate. (C) He needs the professor to sign his application for graduation. (D) He does not have enough credits for graduation.



33. (A) They decided that they did not want any coffee (B) They thought that the Student Center would be closed. (C) They thought tat the Student Center would be crowded. (D) The mad lost his money in the vending machine 34. (A) (B) (C) (D)



Help him with the class. Explain some technical vocabulary. Give him special permission to take the class. Take a form to the registration area.



38. (A) Enroll Mike in the class next year. (B) Allow Mike to take the class this term. (C) Give Mike permission to graduate without the class. (D) Register Mike for another class



To study for a test. To use the telephone. To complain about the vending machine. To get a cup of coffee from the vending machine.



35. (A) He was late arriving at registration. (B) He needs an advisor's signature on a course request form. (C) He is not doing well in the class because it is so large. (D) He must have the permission of the instructor to enroll in a class.



Part C Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to letter of the answer you have chosen. 39. (A) A slow, soft song. 40. (A) Thirteen percent. (B) Music in restaurants. (B) Five to ten percent. (C) Background music. (C) One hundred percent. (D) A pleasant addition to the environment. (D) Thirty percent.



41. (A) (B) (C) (D)



Background music that is low in stimulus value. Upbeat music {hat stimulates sales. Music engineered to reduce stress. Music that starts slow and gets faster at times of the day when people get tired.



42. (A) It can cause shoppers to go through the line faster. (B) It can cause shoppers to buy thirty percent more or less. (C) It can cause shoppers to walk slower and buy more. (D) It does not influence sales. 43. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The "Sun-Up Semester" program. The Community College campus. Video telecourses. Technology for distance learning.



44. (A) (B) (C) (D)



To clarify how to register. To advertise the college. To provide a listing of courses. To give students an alternative to tapes.



45. (A) They should come to campus. (B) They can call the Community C (C) They must contact the instructor. (D) They can use computers..



46. (A) (B) (C) (D)



By using e-mail. By calling KCC-TV. By writing letters. By making video tapes.



47. (A) The relationship between language and culture.. (B) The culture of Hopi society. (C) American Indian cultures. (D) The life of Benjamin Lee Whorf 48. (A) European languages. (B) South American languages. (C) American Indian languages. (D) Computer languages. 49. (A) All languages are related. (B) All American Indian languages are related. (C) Language influences the manner in which an individual understands reality. (D) Language and culture are not related. 50. (A) (B) (C) (D)



The Sapir Hypothesis. The Sapir Whorf Hypothesis. The Sapir-Whorf-Boas Hypothesis. The American Indian Model of the universe.



Section 2: Structure and Written Expression 40 Questions 25 Minutes This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard , written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.



STRUCTURE DIRECTIONS: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the ONE word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the j letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen, 1. --------------------------------- Political demonstrations on American campuses have abated… (A) after 1970 (B) in 1970 6. (C) or 1970 (D) since 1970 2. --------- Ancient civilizations such as those of the Phoenicians and the Mesopotamians … goods rather than use money. (A) use to trade (B) is used to trade (C) used to trade (D) was used to trade 3. ----------------------------------------------------- Justice Sandra Day O'Connor was -------------- to serve on the U.S. Supreme Court. (A) the woman who first (B) the first woman (C) who the first woman (D) the first and a woman



(C) meet (D) meeting



If a ruby is heated it … temporarily lose its color. (A) would (B) will (C) does (D) has



7. … small specimen of the embryonic fluid is removed from a fetus, it will be possible to determine whether the baby will be] born with birth defects. (A) A (B) That a (C) If a (D) When it is a



8. All of the people at the AAME conference are. (A) mathematic teachers (B) mathematics teachers (C) mathematics teacher 4. North Carolina is well known not only for (D) mathematic's teachers the Great Smoky Mountains National Park for … the Cherokee Indian settlements. (A) also 9. To generate income, magazine publishers (B) and must decide whether to increase the subscription price or-------. (C) but also (A) to sell advertising (D) because of (B) if they should sell advertising (C) selling advertising 5. General Grant had General Lee --- him (D) sold advertising at Appomattox to sign the official surrender of the Confederate forces. 10. If it ............more humid in the desert of the (A) to meet (B) met



Southwest, the hot temperatures would be unbearable. (A) be (B) is (C) was (D) were 11. … Java Man, who lived before the first Ice Age, is the first manlike animal. (A) It is generally believed that (B) Generally believed it is (C) Believed generally is (D) That is generally believed.



(A) Because (B) So (C) A (D) Who 14. Of all the cereals, rice is the one ..... food for more people than any of the other grain crops. (A) it provides (B) that providing (C) provides (D) that provides 15. Travelers ------- their reservations well in advance if they want to fly during the Christmas holidays. (A) had better to get (B) had to get better (C) had better get (D) had better got



12. For the investor who … money, silver or bonds are good options. (A) has so little a (B) has very little (C) has so few (D) has very few 13. ------ both men and women have often achieved their career ambitions by midlife, many people are afflicted by at least a temporary period of dissatisfaction and depression.



Written Expression Directions: In questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and till in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. 16.



The duties of the secretary (A) are (B) to take the minutes, (C) mailing the correspondence, and calling the members before (D) meetings.



17.



If biennials were planted this year, they (A) will be (B) likely (C)to bloom (D) next year.



18.



The value (A) of the dollar (B)declines (C)as the rate of inflation (B) raises.



19.



Even though a member (A) has drank (B) too much the night (C) before, the counselors at Alcoholics' Anonymous will try (D) to convince him or her to sober up and stop drinking again.



20.



Anthropologists assert that many of the early American Plains Indians did not engage in planting crops (A) but (B) to hunt, (C) living (D) primarily on buffalo meat.



21.



The neutron bomb provides the (A) capable of a (B) limited nuclear war (C) in which buildings (D) would be preserved, but people would be destroyed.



22.



The differential attractions of the sun and the moon (A) have a direct effect (B) in the (C) rising and falling (D) of the tides.



23.



With special enzymes that are (A) call restriction enzymes, it is possible (B) to split off segments of DNA (C) from the (D) donor organism.



24.



Before TV, the common man (A) seldom never (B) had the opportunity to see and (C) hear his leaders express (D) their views.



25. 26.



(A) If it receives (B) enough rain at the proper time, hay (C) will grow quickly, (D) as grass. Psychology Today (A) is (B) interesting, informative, and (C) it is easy (D) to read.



27.



(A) Before she died, Andrew Jackson's daughter, (B) who (C) lives in the family mansion, (D) used to take tourists through her home.



28.



It is essential that the temperature (A) is not elevated (B) to a point where the substance formed (C) may become unstable and decompose into (D) its constituent elements.



29.



Two (A) of the players from the Yankees (B) has been (C) chosen (D) to participate in the All Star game.



30.



John Philip Sousa, (A) who (B) many people consider the (C) greatest composer of marches, wrote his music during the era (D) known as the Gay 90s.



31.



Although (A) it can be (B) derived from oil, coal, and tar, kerosene is usually (C) produced (D) by refine it from petroleum.



32.



Aeronomy (A) is (B) the study of (C) the earth's upper atmosphere, which includes (D) their composition, temperature, density, and chemical reactions.



33.



The new model (A) costs twice (B) more than (C) last (D) year's model.



34.



The purpose (A) of the United Nations, (B) broad speaking, (B) is to maintain peace and security and (D) to encourage respect for human rights.



35.



(A) Aging in (B) most animals can be readily modified when (C) hey (D) will limit caloric intake.



36.



(A) Even though Miss Alabama lost the beauty contest, she (B) was still (C) more prettier (D) than the other girls in the Miss America pageant.



37.



Although Congressional representatives and senators may serve an unlimited number of (A) term, the president (B) is limited to two, (C) for a total (D) of eight years.



38.



Although we are (A) concerned about the problem of energy sources, we (B) must not fail (C) recognizing the need (C) for environmental protection.



39.



(A) Because of the movement of a glacier, (B) the form (C) of the Great Lakes was very (D) slow.



40.



(A) In 1776 to 1800, (B) the population of the U.S. continued (C) to rise, (D) reaching five million citizens by tin turn of the century.



Section 3: Reading Comprehension 50 Questions 55 Minutes Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of question about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage. Questions 1-10 It has long been known that when exposed to light under suitable conditions of temperature and moisture, the green parts of plants use carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen to it. These exchanges are the opposite of those that occur in respiration. The Line process is called photosynthesis. In photosynthesis, carbohydrates are synthesized from car(5) bon dioxide and water by the chloroplasts of plant cells in the presence of light. In most plants, the water used in photosynthesis is absorbed from the soil by the roots and translocated through the xylem of the root and stem to the leaves. Except for the usually small percentage used in respiration, the oxygen released in the process diffuses out of the leaf into the atmosphere through the stomates. Oxygen is the product of the reaction. For each molecule of car.(10) bon dioxide used, one molecule of oxygen is released. A summary chemical equation for photosynthesis is: 6C02 + 6H20 -» C6 H12 06 + 602 As a result of this process, radiant energy from the sun is stored as chemical energy. In turn, the chemical energy is used to decompose carbon dioxide and water. The products of (15)their decomposition are recombined into a new compound, which is successively built up into more and more complex substances. After many intermediate steps, sugar is produced. At the same time, a balance of gases is preserved in the atmosphere. 1. Which title best expresses the ideas in this passage? (A) A Chemical Equation (B) The Process of Photosynthesis (C) The Parts of Vascular Plants (D) The Production of Sugar



5. The word "stored" in line 13 is closest in meaning to (A) retained (B) converted (C) discovered (D) specified



2. In photosynthesis, water (A) must be present (B) is produced in carbohydrates (C) is stored as chemical energy (D) interrupts the chemical reaction



6. In photosynthesis, energy from the sun is (A) changed to chemical energy (B) conducted from the xylem to the leaves of green plants (C) not necessary to the process (D) released one to one for each molecule of carbon dioxide used



3. Which process is the opposite of photosynthesis? (A) Decomposition (B) Synthesization (C) Diffusion (D) Respiration



7. The word "their" in line 15 refers to (A) radiant energy and chemical energy (B) carbon dioxide and water (C) products (D) complex substances



4. The combination of carbon dioxide and water to form sugar results in an excess of (A) water (B) oxygen (C) carbon (D) chlorophyll



8. The word "successively" in line 15 is closes! in meaning to (A) with effort (B) in a sequence (C) slowly (D) carefully



9. Besides the manufacture of food for plants, what is another benefit of photosynthesis? (A) It produces solar energy. (B) It diffuses additional carbon dioxide into the air. (C) It maintains a balance of gases in the atmosphere. (D) It removes harmful gases from the air.



10. Which of the following is NOT true of the j oxygen used in photosynthesis? (A) Oxygen is absorbed by the roots. (B) Oxygen is the product of photosynthesis (C) Oxygen is used in respiration. (D) Oxygen is released into the atmosphere through the leaves.



Questions 11-20 Alfred Bernhard Nobel, a Swedish inventor and philanthropist, bequeathed most of his vast fortune in trust as a fund from which annual prizes could be awarded to individuals and organizations who had achieved the greatest benefit to humanity in a particular year. Origi Line nally, there were six classifications for outstanding contributions designated in Nobel's will (5) including chemistry, physics, physiology or medicine, literature, and international peace. The prizes are administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Recipients in physics, chemistry, and economics are selected by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences; in (10) physiology or medicine by the Caroline Institute; in literature by the Swedish Academy; and in peace by the Norwegian Nobel Committee appointed by Norway's parliament. The prizes are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each one includes a gold medal, a diploma, and a cash award of about one million dollars. 11. What does this passage mainly discuss? (A) Alfred Bernhard Nobel (B) The Nobel prizes (C) Great contributions to mankind (D) Swedish philanthropy



15. The word "will" in line 4 refers to (A) Nobel's wishes (B) a legal document^, (C) a future intention (D) a free choice



12. Why were the prizes named for Alfred Bernhard Nobel? (A) He left money in his will to establish a fund for the prizes. (B) He won the first Nobel prize for his work in philanthropy. (C) He is now living in Sweden. (D) He serves as chairman of the committee to choose the recipients of the prizes.



16. A Nabel prize would NOT be given to (A) an author who wrote a novel (B) a doctor who discovered a vaccine (C) a composer who wrote a symphony (D) a diplomat who negotiated a peace settlement



13. How often are the Nobel prizes awarded? (E) Five times a year (F) Once a year (G) Twice a year (H) Once every two years 14. The word "outstanding" in line 4 could best be replaced by (A) recent (B) unusual (C) established (D) exceptional^



17. The word "one" in line 13 refers to (A) tribute (B) anniversary (C) prize (D) candidate 18. Which individual or organization serves as administrator for the trust? (A) The King of Sweden (B) The Nobel Foundation (C) The Central Bank of Sweden (D) Swedish and Norwegian academies and institutes 19. The word "appropriate" in line 13 is closest in meaning to (A) prestigious (B) customary (C) suitable (D) transitory



20. Why are the awards presented on December 10? (A) It is a tribute to the King of Sweden. (B) Alfred Bernhard Nobel died on that day. (C) That date was established in Alfred Nobel's will. (D) The Central Bank of Sweden administers the trust Questions 21-30 Although stage plays have been set to music since the era of the ancient Greeks, when the dramas of Sophocles and Aeschylus were accompanied by lyres and flutes, the usually accepted date for the beginning of opera as we know it is 1600. As part of the celebration of Line the marriage of King Henry IV of France to the Italian aristocrat Maria de Medici, the Flo(5) rentine composer Jacopo Perf produced his famous Euridice, generally considered to be the first opera. Following his example, a group of Italian musicians, poets, and noblemen called the Camerata began to revive the style of musical story that had been used in Greek tragedy. The Camerata took most of the plots for their operas from Greek and Roman history and mythology, writing librettos or dramas for music. They called their compositions opera in (10) musical or musical works. It is from this phrase that the word "opera" is borrowed. For several years, the center of opera was Florence, but gradually, during the baroque period, it spread throughout Italy. By the late 1600s, operas were being written and performed in Europe, especially in England, France, and Germany. But, for many years, the Italian opera was considered the ideal, and many non-Italian composers continued to use Italian librettos (15) The European form de-emphasized the dramatic aspect. New orchestral effects and even ballet were introduced under the guise of opera. Composers gave in to the demands of singer.-, writing many operas that were nothing more than a succession of brilliant tricks for the voice-Complicated arias, recitatives, and duets evolved. The aria, which is a long solo, may be compared to a song in which the characters express their thoughts and feelings. The recitative, (20) which is also a solo, is a recitation set to music whose purpose is to continue the story line. The duet is a musical piece written for two voices which may serve the function of either an aria or a recitative. 21. This passage is a summary of (A) opera in Italy (B) the Camerata (C) the development of opera (D) Euridice



25. The author suggests that Euridice was produced (A) in France (B) originally by Sophocles and Aeschylus (C) without much success (D) for the wedding of King Henry



22. According to this passage, when did modern opera begin? (A) In the time of the ancient Greeks (B) In the fifteenth century (C) At the beginning of the sixteenth century (D) At the beginning of the seventeenth century



26. What was the Camerata? (A) A group of Greek musicians (B) Musicians who developed a new musical drama based upon Greek drama (C) A style of music not known in Italy (D) The name given to the court of King Henry IV



23. The word "it" in line 3 refers to (A) opera (B) date (C) era (D) music



27. The word "revive" in line 7 could best be replaced by (A) appreciate (B) resume (C) modify (D) investigate



24. According to the author, what did Jacopo Perf write? (A) Greek tragedy (B) The first opera (C) The opera Maria de Medici (D) The opera The Camerata



29. From what did the term "opera" derive? (A) Greek and Roman history and mythology (B) Non-Italian composers (C) The Italian phrase the means "musical works" (D) The ideas of composer Jacopo Perf



30. Which of the following is an example of a solo? (A) A recitative (B) A duet (C) An opera (D) A lyre Questions 31-40 According to the controversial sunspot theory, great storms on the surface of the sun hurl streams of solar particles into the atmosphere, causing a shift in the weather on earth. A typical sunspot consists of a dark central umbra surrounded by a lighter penumbra of Line light and dark threads extending out from the center like the spokes of a wheel. Actually, the (5) sunspots are cooler than the rest of the photosphere, which may account for their color. Typically, the temperature in a sunspot umbra is about 4000 K, whereas the temperature in a penumbra registers 5500 K, and the granules outside the spot are 6000 K. Sunspots range in size from tiny granules to complex structures with areas stretching for billions of square miles. About 5 percent of the spots are large enough so that they can be seen (10) without instruments; consequently, observations of sunspots have been recorded for several thousand years. Sunspots have been observed in arrangements of one to more than one hundred spots, but they tend to occur in pairs. There is also a marked tendency for the two spots of a pair to have opposite magnetic polarities. Furthermore, the strength of the magnetic field associated with (15) any given sunspot is closely related to the spot's size. Although there is no theory that completely explains the nature and function of sunspots, several models attempt to relate the phenomenon to magnetic fields along the lines of longitude from the north and south poles of the sun. 31. What is the author's main purpose in the passage? (A) To propose a theory to explain sunspots (B) To describe the nature of sunspots (C) To compare the umbra and the penumbra in sunspots (D) To argue for the existence of magnetic fields in sunspots 32. The word "controversial" in line 1 is closest in meaning to (A) widely accepted (B) open to debate (C) just introduced (D) very complicated 33. Solar particles are hurled into space by (A) undetermined causes (B) disturbances of wind (C) small rivers on the surface of the sun (D) changes in the earth's atmosphere 34. The word "particles" in line 2 refers to (A) gas explosions in the atmosphere (B) light rays from the sun (C) liquid streams on the sun (D) small pieces of matter from the sun 35. How can we describe matter from the sun that enters the earth's atmosphere? (A) Very small (B) Very hot (C) Very bright (D) Very hard



36. The sunspot theory is (A) not considered very important (B) widely accepted (C) subject to disagreement (D) relatively new 37. The word "they" in line 9 refers to (A) structures (B) spots (C) miles (D) granules 38. The word "consequently" in line 10 could best be replaced by (A) as a result (B) nevertheless (C) without doubt (D) in this way 39. In which configuration do sunspots usually occur? (A) In one spot of varying size (B) In a configuration of two spots (C) In arrangements of one hundred ors pots (D) In groups of several thousand spots



40. How are sunspots explained? (A) Sunspots appear to be related ton magnetic fields on the earth. (B) Sunspots may be related to magnetic fields that follow longitudinal lines the sun. (C) Sunspots are explained by storms that occur on the earth. (D) Sunspots have no theory or model to explain them. Questions 41-50 Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned undersea vehicles along with breakthroughs in satellite technology and computer equipment have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish Line and their mental concentration was limited. Because of undersea pressure that affected their (5) speech organs, communication among divers was difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers make direct observations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples taken from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor are made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines and aerial photography. Some of the submarines can dive to depths of more than (10) seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit information back to land-based laboratories, often via satellite. Particularly important are data about water temperature, currents and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the temperature (15) and the color of the ocean's surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect and analyze data from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean's movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the environment. Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than (20) on research ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more efficiently. Some of mankind's most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology. 41. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned? (A) Technological advances in oceanography (B) Communication among divers (C) Direct observation of the ocean floor (D) Undersea vehicles



45. Undersea vehicles (A) are too small for a man to fit inside (B) are very slow to respond (C) have the same limitations that divers have (D) make direct observations of the ocean Floor



42. The word "sluggish" in line 3 is closest in meaning to (A) nervous (B) confused (C) slow moving (D) very weak



46. The word "cruise" in line 10 could best be replaced by (A) travel at a constant speed (B) function without problems (C) stay in communication (D) remain still



43. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because (A) the pressure affected their speech organs (B) the vehicles they used have not been perfected (C) they did not pronounce clearly (D) the water destroyed their speech organs



47. How is a radio-equipped buoy operated? (A) By operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater (B) By operators outside the vehicle on a ship (C) By operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform (D) By operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore



44. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon (A) vehicles as well as divers (B) radios that divers use to communicate (C) controlling currents and the weather (D) the limitations of diving equipment



48. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs? (A) The temperature of the ocean's surface (B) Cloud formations over the ocean (C) A model of the ocean's movements (D) The location of sea ice 49. The word "those" in line 22 refers to (A) energy and food (B) problems (C) observations (D) vehicles 50. According to the author, what are some of the problems the underwater studies may eventually resolve? (A) Weather and temperature control (B) Food and energy shortages (C) Transportation and communication problems (E) Overcrowding and housing problems